QRZ! Ham Radio 5

home *** CD-ROM | disk | FTP | other *** search

/ QRZ! Ham Radio 5 / QRZ Ham Radio Callsign Database - Volume 5.iso / files / arrl / vec / extra_1.asc < prev next >

Wrap

Text File | 1994-11-20 | 60.9 KB | 1,506 lines

4BA-1A.1 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 3525-3775 kHz B. 3500-3525 kHz C. 3700-3750 kHz D. 3500-3550 kHz 4BA-1A.2 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 3750-3775 kHz B. 3800-3850 kHz C. 3775-3800 kHz D. 3800-3825 kHz 4BA-1A.3 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 7000-7025 kHz B. 7000-7050 kHz C. 7025-7050 kHz D. 7100-7150 kHz 4BA-1A.4 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz 4BA-1A.5 What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter wavelength band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz 4BA-1B.1 What is a ++++spurious emission++++ as defined in Part 97? A. An emission, on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth of a transmission, the level of which may be reduced without affecting the information being transmitted B. An emission, on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth of a transmission, the level of which exceeds 25 microwatts C. An emission, on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth of a transmission, the level of which exceeds 10 microwatts D. An emission, on frequencies outside the amateur bands, the level of which exceeds 10 microwatts 4BA-1B.2 How much must the mean power of any spurious emission from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency is below 30 MHz and the mean transmitted power is equal to or greater than 5 watts? A. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 25 mW B. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 50 mW C. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 50 mW D. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 25 mW 4BA-1B.3 How much must the mean power of any spurious emission from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency is above 30 MHz but below 225 MHz and the mean transmitted power is greater than 25 watts? A. At least 30 dB below mean power of the fundamental B. At least 40 dB below mean power of the fundamental C. At least 50 dB below mean power of the fundamental D. At least 60 dB below mean power of the fundamental 4BA-1B.4 What can the FCC require the licensee to do if any spurious emission from an amateur station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station? A. Reduce the spurious emissions to 0 dB below the fundamental B. Observe quiet hours and pay a fine C. Forfeit the station license and pay a fine D. Eliminate or reduce the interference 4BA-1C.1 What are the points of communication for an amateur station? A. Other amateur stations only B. Other amateur stations and other stations authorized by the FCC to communicate with amateurs C. Other amateur stations and stations in the Personal Radio Service D. Other amateur stations and stations in the Aviation or Private Land Mobile Radio Services 4BA-1C.2 With which stations may an amateur station communicate? A. Amateur, RACES, and FCC Monitoring stations B. Amateur stations and any other station authorized by the FCC to communicate with amateur stations C. Amateur stations only D. Amateur stations and US Government stations 4BA-1C.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station communicate with a non-amateur station? A. Only during emergencies and when the Commission has authorized the non-amateur station to communicate with amateur stations B. Under no circumstances C. Only when the state governor has authorized that station to communicate with amateurs D. Only during Public Service events in connection with REACT groups 4BA-1D.1 With what rules must US citizens comply when operating an amateur station aboard any craft or vessel that is registered in the US while in international waters or airspace? A. The FCC rules contained in Part 15 B. The FCC rules contained in Part 97 C. The IARU rules governing international operation D. There are no rules governing Amateur Radio operation in international waters 4BA-1E.1 An amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft in a compartment separate from the main radio installation. What other conditions must the amateur operator comply with? A. The Amateur Radio operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the captain of the aircraft B. There must be an approved antenna switch included, so the amateur can use the ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting only when the main radios are not in use C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the ship or aircraft power D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license 4BA-1E.2 What types of licenses or permits are required before an amateur operator may transmit from a vessel registered in the US? A. No amateur license is required outside of international waters B. Any amateur operator/primary station license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee issued by the FCC C. Only amateurs holding General class or higher licenses may transmit from a vessel registered in the US D. Only an Amateur Extra class licensee may operate aboard a vessel registered in the US 4BA-2A.1 What is an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee++++? A. An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by certain foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the United States and its possessions B. An FCC permit to allow a United States licensed amateur to operate his station in a foreign nation, except Canada C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle traffic between the United States and the amateur's own nation, subject to the FCC rules on traffic-handling and third-party messages D. An FCC permit to a commercial telecommunications company allowing that company to pay amateurs to handle traffic during emergencies 4BA-2B.1 Who is eligible for an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee++++? A. Anyone holding a valid amateur operator/primary station license issued by a foreign government B. Anyone holding a valid amateur operator/primary station license issued by a foreign government with which the United States has a reciprocal operating agreement, providing that person is not a United States citizen C. Anyone who holds a valid amateur operator/primary station license issued by a foreign government with which the United States has a reciprocal operating agreement D. Anyone other than a United States citizen who holds a valid Amateur Radio or shortwave listeners license issued by a foreign government 4BA-2B.2 Under what circumstances, if any, is a US citizen holding a foreign Amateur Radio license eligible to obtain an FCC ++++Reciprocal Operating Permit++++? A. A US Citizen is not eligible to obtain a Reciprocal Operating Permit for use in the United States B. Only if the applicant brings his or her equipment with them from the foreign country C. Only if that person is unable to qualify for a United States amateur license D. If the applicant does not hold an FCC license as of the date of application, but had held a US amateur license other than Novice class less than 10 years before the date of application 4BA-2C.1 What are the operator frequency privileges authorized by an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee++++? A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent United States amateur license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the permit B. Those that the holder of the reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee would have if he were in his own country C. Only those frequencies permitted to United States amateurs that the holder of the reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee would have in his own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise D. Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise 4BA-2D.1 How does an alien operator identify an amateur station when operating under an FCC ++++reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee++++? A. By using only his or her own call B. By using his or her own call, followed by the city and state in the United States or possessions closest to his or her present location C. By using the letter(s) and number indicating the United States call-letter district of his or her location at the time of the contact, followed by a slant bar (or the word "stroke") and his or her own call. The city and state nearest the operating location must be specified once during each contact D. By using his or her own call sign, followed by the serial number of the reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee and the call-letter district number of his or her present location 4BA-3A.1 What is ++++RACES++++? A. An Amateur Radio network for providing emergency communications during long-distance athletic contests B. The radio amateur civil emergency service C. The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services D. An Amateur Radio network providing emergency communications for transoceanic boat or aircraft races 4BA-3B.1 What is the purpose of ++++RACES++++? A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies B. To provide emergency communications for transoceanic boat or aircraft races C. To provide routine and emergency communications for long- distance athletic events D. To provide routine and emergency communications for large- scale international events, such as the Olympic games 4BA-3C.1 With what other organization must an amateur station be registered before ++++RACES++++ registration is permitted? A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service B. The US Department of Defense C. A civil defense organization D. The Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC Field Operations Bureau 4BA-3D.1 Who may be the control operator of a ++++RACES++++ station? A. Anyone who holds a valid FCC amateur operator's license other than Novice B. Only an Amateur Extra class licensee C. Anyone who holds an FCC amateur operator/primary station license other than Novice and is certified by a civil defense organization D. Anyone who holds an FCC amateur operator/primary station license and is certified by a civil defense organization 4BA-3E.1 What additional operator privileges are granted to an Amateur Extra class operator registered with ++++RACES++++? A. None B. Permission to operate CW on 5167.5 kHz C. Permission to operate an unattended HF packet radio station D. Permission to operate on the 237-MHz civil defense band 4BA-3F.1 What frequencies are normally available for ++++RACES++++ operation? A. Only those frequencies authorized by the ARRL Section Emergency Coordinator B. Only those frequencies listed in Section 97.8 C. Only transmitting frequencies in the top 25 kHz of each amateur band D. All frequencies available to the amateur service 4BA-3G.1 What type of emergency can cause a limitation on the frequencies available for ++++RACES++++ operation? A. An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934 B. RACES operations must be confined to a single frequency band if the emergency is contained within a single state C. RACES operations must be conducted on a VHF band if the emergency is confined to an area 25 miles or less in radius D. The Red Cross may limit available frequencies if the emergency involves no immediate danger of loss of life 4BA-3H.1 Which amateur stations may be operated in ++++RACES++++? A. Only Extra class amateur stations B. Any licensed amateur station except a station licensed to a Novice C. Any licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization D. Any licensed amateur station other than a station licensed to a Novice, providing the station is certified by the responsible civil defense organization 4BA-3H.2 What are the points of communications for amateur stations operated in ++++RACES++++ and certified by the responsible civil defense organization as registered with that organization? A. RACES stations and certain other stations authorized by the responsible civil defense official B. Any RACES stations and any FCC licensed amateur stations except stations licensed to Novices C. Any FCC licensed amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications Service D. Any FCC licensed amateur station except stations licensed to Novices 4BA-3I.1 What are permissible communications in ++++RACES++++? A. Any communications concerning local traffic nets B. Any communications concerning the Amateur Radio Emergency Service C. Any communications concerning national defense and security or immediate safety of people and property that are authorized by the area civil defense organization D. Any communications concerning national defense or security or immediate safety of people or property but only when a state of emergency has been declared by the President, the governor, or other authorized official, and then only so long as the state of emergency endures 4BA-4A.1 What are the purposes of the Amateur Satellite Service? A. It is a radionavigation service using stations on earth satellites for the same purposes as those of the amateur service B. It is a radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for weather information C. It is a radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for the same purpose as those of the amateur service D. It is a radiolocation service using stations on earth satellites for amateur operators engaged in satellite radar experimentation 4BA-4B.1 What are some frequencies available for ++++space operation++++? A. 7.0-7.1, 14.00-14.25, 21.00-21.45, 24.890-24.990, 28.00- 29.70, 144-146, 435-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz B. 7.0-7.3, 21.00-21.45, 28.00-29.70, 144-146, 432-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz C. All frequencies available to the amateur service, providing license-class, power and emission-type restrictions are observed D. Only frequencies available to Amateur Extra class licensees 4BA-4C-1.1 What is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station which transmits communications used to initiate, modify or terminate the functions of a space station? A. Space operation B. Telecommand operation C. Earth operation D. Control operation 4BA-4C-2.1 Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? A. Any Amateur Radio licensee except Novice B. Amateur Extra class licensees only C. Telecommand operation is not permitted in the amateur satellite service D. Any amateur station designated by the space station licensee 4BA-4D-1.1 What term describes the space-to-earth transmissions used to communicate the results of measurements made by a space station? A. Data transmission B. Frame check sequence C. Telemetry D. Telecommand operation 4BA-4E-1.1 What is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station that is more than 50 km above the Earth's surface? A. EME operation B. Exospheric operation C. Downlink operation D. Space station operation 4BA-4E-2.1 Which amateur stations are eligible for ++++space operation++++? A. Any licensee except Novice B. General, Advanced and Extra class licensees only C. Advanced and Extra class licensees only D. Amateur Extra class licensees only 4BA-4E-4.1 When must the licensee of a station scheduled for space operation give the FCC written pre-space notification? A. Both 3 months and 72 hours prior to initiating space station transmissions B. Both 6 months and 3 months prior to initiating space station transmissions C. Both 12 months and 3 months prior to initiating space station transmissions D. Both 27 months and 5 months prior to initiating space station transmissions 4BA-4E-4.2 When must the licensee of a station in ++++space operation++++ give the FCC written in-space notification? A. No later than 24 hours following initiation of space operation B. No later than 72 hours following initiation of space operation C. No later than 7 days following initiation of space operation D. No later than 30 days following initiation of space operation 4BA-4E-4.3 When must the licensee of a station in ++++space operation++++ give the FCC written post-space notification? A. No later than 48 hours after termination is complete, under normal circumstances B. No later than 72 hours after termination is complete, under normal circumstances C. No later than 7 days after termination is complete, under normal circumstances D. No later than 3 months after termination is complete, under normal circumstances 4BA-4F-1.1 What term describes an amateur station located on, or within 50 km of, the earth's surface intended for communications with space stations? A. Earth station B. Telecommand station C. Repeater station D. Auxiliary station 4BA-4F-2.1 Which amateur licensees are eligible to operate an ++++earth station++++? A. Any amateur licensee B. Amateur Extra class licensees only C. Any station except those licensed to Novices D. A special license issued by the FCC is required before any amateur licensee may operate an earth station 4BA-5A.1 What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator? A. An organization that volunteers to administer amateur license examinations to candidates for the Novice license B. An organization that volunteers to administer amateur license examinations for any class of license other than Novice C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and administering examinations for Technician, General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator licenses D. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and administering examinations for Novice class amateur operator licenses 4BA-5B.1 What are some of the requirements to be a ++++VEC++++? A. Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur equipment or in the coordination of amateur activities throughout at least one call letter district, and agree to abide by FCC Rules concerning administration of amateur license examinations B. Be an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the amateur service; be at least regional in scope; agree to coordinate examinations for Technician, General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator licenses C. Be an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the amateur service; be, at the most, county-wide in scope; and agree to coordinate examinations for all classes of amateur operator licenses D. Be engaged in a business related to Amateur Radio and agree to administer amateur license examinations in accordance with FCC Rules throughout at least one call letter district 4BA-5C.1 What are the functions of a ++++VEC++++? A. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' application forms, answer sheets and test results and forward the applications to the FCC; maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules B. Assemble, print and sell FCC-approved examination forms; accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' answer sheets and forward them to the FCC; screen applications for completeness and authenticity; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules C. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; certify that examiners' equipment is type-accepted by the FCC; assemble, print and distribute FCC-approved examination forms; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules D. Maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations; administer code and theory examinations; score and forward the test papers to the FCC so that the appropriate license may be issued to each successful candidate 4BA-5C.2 Where are the questions listed that must be used in written examinations? A. In the appropriate VEC question pool B. In PR Bulletin 1035C C. In PL 97-259 D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order 4BA-5C.3 How is an Element 3(A) examination prepared? A. By General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class Volunteer Examiners or a qualified supplier selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 4BA-5C.4 How is an Element 3(B) examination prepared? A. By Advanced or Amateur Extra class Volunteer Examiners or a qualified supplier selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 4BA-5C.5 How is an Element 4(A) examination prepared? A. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 4BA-5C.6 How is an Element 4(B) examination prepared? A. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 4BA-5D.1 What organization coordinates the dates and times for scheduling Amateur Radio examinations? A. The FCC B. A VEC C. The IARU D. Local radio clubs 4BA-5E.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a VE on the basis of membership in an Amateur Radio organization? A. Under no circumstances B. Only when the prospective VE is an ARRL member C. Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the local Amateur Radio club D. Only when the club is at least regional in scope 4BA-5E.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a VE on the basis of lack of membership in an Amateur Radio organization? A. Under no circumstances B. Only when the prospective VE is not an ARRL member C. Only when the club is at least regional in scope D. Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the local Amateur Radio club giving the examinations 4BA-5F.1 Under what circumstance, if any, may an organization engaged in the manufacture of equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions be a VEC? A. Under no circumstances B. If the organization's amateur-related sales are very small C. If the organization is manufacturing very specialized amateur equipment D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest 4BA-5F.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who is an employee of a company that is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions be a VE? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the employee does not normally communicate with that part of the company engaged in the manufacture or distribution of amateur equipment C. Only if the employee has no financial interest in the company D. Only if the employee is an Extra class licensee 4BA-5F.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who owns a significant interest in a company that is engaged in the preparation of publications used in preparation for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VE? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are very small C. Only if the organization is publishing very specialized material D. Only if the person is an Extra class licensee 4BA-5F.4 Under what circumstances, if any, may an organization engaged in the distribution of publications used in preparation for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VEC? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the organization's amateur publishing business is very small C. Only if the organization is selling the publication at cost to examinees D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest 4BA-5G.1 Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses incurred in preparing, processing or administering examinations? A. Examinees B. FCC C. ARRL D. FCC and Examiners 4BA-5G.2 What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts reimbursement and fails to provide the annual expense certification? A. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year B. Disaccredit the VE C. Suspend the VE's accreditation and report the information to the FCC D. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months 4BA-5G.3 What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE who accepts reimbursement? A. All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from the examinees B. All out-of-pocket expenses only C. Reimbursements from examiners only D. FCC reimbursements only 4BA-5G.4 For what period of time must a VE maintain records of out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements for each examination session for which reimbursement is accepted? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years 4BA-5G.5 By what date each year must a VE forward to the VEC a certification concerning expenses for which reimbursement was accepted? A. December 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted B. January 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted C. April 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted D. October 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted 4BA-5G.6 For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses? A. Preparing, processing or administering examinations above the Novice class B. Preparing, processing or administering examinations including the Novice class C. A VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses D. Only for preparation of examination elements 4BA-6A.1 What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner? A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses B. An amateur operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses C. An amateur operator who administers examinations to applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses for a fee D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to administer amateur license examinations 4BA-6A.2 What is an accredited ++++VE++++? A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses B. An amateur operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses C. An amateur operator who administers examinations to applicants for amateur operator/primary station licenses for a fee D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to give amateur license examinations 4BA-6B.1 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for a Technician class operator license? A. The Volunteer Examiner must be a Novice class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator B. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Advanced or Extra class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator C. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Extra class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator D. The Volunteer Examiner must be a General class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator 4BA-6B.2 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for a General class operator license? A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC B. The examiner must hold an Extra class license and be accredited by a VEC C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC D. The examiner must hold an Extra class license to administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test element 4BA-6B.3 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for an Advanced class operator license? A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC B. The examiner must hold an Extra class license and be accredited by a VEC C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC D. The examiner must hold an Extra class license to administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test element 4BA-6B.4 What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for an Amateur Extra class operator license? A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC B. The examiner must hold an Extra class license and be accredited by a VEC C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC D. The examiner must hold an Extra class license to administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test element 4BA-6B.5 When is ++++VE++++ accreditation necessary? A. Always in order to administer a Technician or higher class license examination B. Always in order to administer a Novice or higher class license examination C. Sometimes in order to administer an Advanced or higher class license examination D. VE accreditation is not necessary in order to administer a General or higher class license examination 4BA-6C.1 What is ++++VE++++ accreditation? A. The process by which all Advanced and Extra class licensees are automatically given permission to conduct Amateur Radio examinations B. The process by which the FCC tests volunteers who wish to coordinate amateur operator/primary station license examinations C. The process by which the prospective VE requests his or her requirements for accreditation D. The process by which each VEC makes sure its VEs meet FCC requirements to serve as Volunteer Examiners 4BA-6C.2 What are the requirements for ++++VE++++ accreditation? A. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 18 years old; not have any conflict of interest; and never had his or her amateur license suspended or revoked B. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 16 years old; and not have any conflict of interest C. Hold an Extra class license or higher; be at least 18 years old; and be a member of ARRL D. There are no requirements for accreditation, other than holding a General or higher class license 4BA-6C.3 The services of which persons seeking to be VEs will not be accepted by the FCC? A. Persons with Advanced class licenses B. Persons being between 18 and 21 years of age C. Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked D. Persons who are employees of the Federal Government 4BA-6D.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person be compensated for services as a VE? A. When the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session B. When the VE loses a day's pay to administer the exam C. When the VE spends many hours preparing for the test session D. Under no circumstances 4BA-6D.2 How much money, if any, may a person accept for services as a VE? A. None B. Up to a half day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session C. Up to a full day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours preparing for the test session D. Up to 50 if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session 4BA-7A-1.1 What is an ++++Element 1(A)++++ examination intended to prove? A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM B. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM C. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM 4BA-7A-1.2 What is an ++++Element 1(B)++++ examination intended to prove? A. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations B. The applicant's knowledge of General class theory and regulations C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM 4BA-7A-1.3 What is an ++++Element 1(C)++++ examination intended to prove? A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM B. The applicant's knowledge of Amateur Extra class theory and regulations C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM 4BA-7A-1.4 What is ++++Examination Element 2++++? A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Novice operator license D. The written examination for the Technician operator license 4BA-7A-1.5 What is ++++Examination Element 3(A) ++++? A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Technician class operator license D. The written examination for the General class operator license 4BA-7A-1.6 What is ++++Examination Element 3(B)++++? A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Technician class operator license D. The written examination for the General class operator license 4BA-7A-1.7 What is ++++Examination Element 4(A)++++? A. The written examination for the Technician class operator license B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator license D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra class operator license 4BA-7A-1.8 What is ++++Examination Element 4(B)++++? A. The written examination for the Technician class operator license B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator license D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra class operator license 4BA-7A-2.1 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 1(B)++++? A. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier B. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators C. The FCC D. The Field Operations Bureau 4BA-7A-2.2 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 1(C)++++? A. The FCC B. The Field Operations Bureau C. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators D. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier 4BA-7A-2.3 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 3(A)++++? A. General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators 4BA-7A-2.4 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 3(B)++++? A. Advanced or Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators 4BA-7A-2.5 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 4(A)++++? A. Advanced or Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier 4BA-7A-2.6 Who must prepare ++++Examination Element 4(B)++++? A. Advanced or Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Amateur Extra class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or a qualified supplier 4BA-7B.1 What examination elements are required for an Amateur Extra class operator license? A. 1(C) and 4(B) B. 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) C. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) D. 1(C), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) 4BA-7B.2 What examination elements are required for an Advanced class operator license? A. 1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) B. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) C. 1(B) and 4(A) D. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) 4BA-7B.3 What examination elements are required for a General class operator license? A. 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) B. 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) C. 1(A), 3(A) and 3(B) D. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) 4BA-7B.4 (This question has been withdrawn.) What examination elements are required for a Technician class operator license? A. 1(A) and 2B B. 1(A) and 3(A) C. 1(A), 2 and 3(A) D. 2 and 3(A) 4BA-7C.1 What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Novice class operator license? A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A) and 2 B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B) and 3(A) C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B) and 2 D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A) and 3(A) 4BA-7C.2 (This question has been withdrawn.) What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Technician class operator license ++++issued after March 20, 1987++++? A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A) and 2 B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2 and 3(A) C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2 and 3(A) D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) 4BA-7C.3 What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Technician class operator license ++++issued before March 21, 1987++++? A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2 and 3(B) B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 4(A) D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) 4BA-7C.4 What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid General class operator license? A. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(B) D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) 4BA-7C.5 What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Advanced class operator license? A. Credit for successful completion of element 4(A) B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B) and 4(A) C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) D. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(C), 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) 4BA-7C.6 What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by another country? A. Credit for successful completion of any elements that may be identical to those required for U.S. licensees B. No credit C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) and 1(C) D. Credit for successful completion of elements 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) 4BA-7C.7 What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by any other United States government agency than the FCC? A. No credit B. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C) C. Credit for successful completion of elements 4(A) and 4(B) D. Credit for successful completion of element 1(C) 4BA-7C.8 What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds an unexpired (or expired less than five years) FCC- issued commercial radiotelegraph operator license or permit? A. No credit B. Credit for successful completion of element 1(B) only C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C) D. Credit for successful completion of element 1(A) only 4BA-7C.9 What examination credit must be given to the holder of a valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination? A. Credit for previously completed written examination elements only B. Credit for the code speed associated with the previously completed telegraphy examination elements only C. Credit for previously completed written and telegraphy examination elements only D. Credit for previously completed commercial examination elements only 4BA-7D.1 Who determines where and when examinations for amateur operator licenses are to be administered? A. The FCC B. The Section Manager C. The applicants D. The administering Volunteer Examiner Team 4BA-7D.2 Where must the examiners be and what must they be doing during an examination? A. The examiners must be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination B. The examiners must be absent to allow the candidate(s) to complete the entire examination in accordance with the traditional honor system C. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout the administration of telegraphy examination elements only D. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout the administration of written examination elements only 4BA-7D.3 Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an examination? A. The VEC B. The FCC C. The administering Volunteer Examiners D. The candidates and the administering Volunteer Examiners 4BA-7D.4 What should an examiner do when a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply with the examiner's instructions will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but refuse to issue a certificate of successful completion of examination for any elements passed by fraudulent means D. Immediately terminate the examination and report the violation to federal law enforcement officials 4BA-7D.5 What will the administering VEs require an examinee to do upon completion of an examination element? A. Complete a brief written evaluation of the session B. Return all test papers to the examiners C. Return all test papers to the VEC D. Pay the registration fee 4BA-7E.1 When must the test papers be graded? A. Within 5 days of completion of an examination element B. Within 30 days of completion of an examination element C. Immediately upon completion of an examination element D. Within ten days of completion of an examination element 4BA-7E.2 Who must grade the test papers? A. The ARRL B. The administering Volunteer Examiners C. The Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator D. The FCC 4BA-7E.3 How do the examiners inform a candidate who does not score a passing grade? A. Return the application to the examinee and inform the examinee of the grade B. Give the percentage of the questions answered incorrectly and return the application to the candidate C. Tell the candidate that he or she failed and return the application to the candidate D. Show how the incorrect answers should have been answered and give a copy of the corrected answer sheet to the candidate 4BA-7E.4 What must the examiners do when the candidate scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade? A. Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and return the application to the candidate B. Tell the candidate that he or she passed C. Issue the candidate an operator license D. Certify on the examinee's application form that the applicant is qualified for the license and report the basis for the qualification 4BA-7E.5 Within what time limit after administering an exam must the examiners submit the applications and test papers from successful candidates to the VEC? A. Within 10 days B. Within 15 days C. Within 30 days D. Within 90 days 4BA-7E.6 To whom do the examiners submit successful candidates' applications and test papers? A. To the candidate B. To the coordinating VEC C. To the local radio club D. To the regional Section Manager 4BA-7F.1 When an applicant passes an examination to upgrade his or her operator license, under what authority may he or she be the control operator of an amateur station with the privileges of the higher operator class? A. That of the Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination issued by the VE Team that administered the examination B. That of the ARRL C. Applicants already licensed in the amateur service may not use their newly earned privileges until they receive their permanent amateur station and operator licenses D. Applicants may only use their newly earned privileges during emergencies pending issuance of their permanent amateur station and operator licenses 4BA-7F.2 What is a ++++Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination++++? A. A document printed by the FCC B. A document required for already licensed applicants operating with privileges of an amateur operator class higher than that of their permanent amateur operator licenses C. A document a candidate may use for an indefinite period of time to receive credit for successful completion of any written element D. A permanent amateur station and operator license certificate issued to a newly-upgraded licensee by the FCC within 90 days of the completion of the examination 4BA-7F.3 How long may a successful candidate operate a station under authority of a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination with the rights and privileges of the higher operator class for which the applicant has passed the appropriate examinations? A. 30 days or until issuance of a permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first B. 3 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first C. 6 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first D. 365 days or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first 4BA-7F.4 How must the station call sign be amended when operating under the temporary authority of a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination? A. The applicant must use an identifier code as a prefix to his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "interim AE KA1MJP" B. The applicant must use an identifier code as a suffix to his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "KA1MJP temporary AE" C. By adding after the call sign, when using voice, the phrase "operating temporary Technician, General, Advanced or Extra" D. By adding to the call sign, when using CW, the slant bar followed by the letters T, G, A or E 4BB-1A.1 What is an ++++ascending pass++++ for an amateur satellite? A. A pass from west to east B. A pass from east to west C. A pass from south to north D. A pass from north to south 4BB-1A.2 What is a ++++descending pass++++ for an amateur satellite? A. A pass from north to south B. A pass from west to east C. A pass from east to west D. A pass from south to north 4BB-1A.3 What is the ++++period++++ of an amateur satellite? A. An orbital arc that extends from 60 degrees west longitude to 145 degrees west longitude B. The point on an orbit where satellite height is minimum C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit D. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee 4BB-1B.1 What is ++++Mode A++++ in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters B. The lowest frequency used in Phase 3 transponders C. The highest frequency used in Phase 3 translators D. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters 4BB-1B.2 What is ++++Mode B++++ in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters B. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters C. The beacon output D. A codestore device used to record messages 4BB-1B.3 What is ++++Mode J++++ in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters B. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70 centimeters C. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters D. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters 4BB-1B.4 What is ++++Mode L++++ in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters B. Operation through a 23-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70 centimeters C. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 23 centimeters D. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70 centimeters 4BB-1C.1 What is a ++++linear transponder++++? A. A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals B. A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a certain passband C. An amplifier for SSB transmissions D. A device used to change FM to SSB 4BB-1C.2 What are the two basic types of ++++linear transponders++++ used in amateur satellites? A. Inverting and noninverting B. Geostationary and elliptical C. Phase 2 and Phase 3 D. Amplitude modulated and frequency modulated 4BB-1D.1 Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by several kHz during a low-earth-orbit amateur satellite pass? A. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Kepler effect B. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Bernoulli effect C. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Boyles' law effect D. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Doppler effect 4BB-1D.2 Why does the received signal from a Phase III amateur satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect? A. Because the satellite is rotating B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler effect 4BB-1D.3 What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of ++++spin modulation++++ and ++++Faraday rotation++++? A. A nonpolarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array 4BB-2A.1 How often is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system? A. 30 times per second B. 60 times per second C. 90 times per second D. 120 times per second 4BB-2A.2 How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1050 4BB-2A.3 How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television system? A. By scanning the field from top to bottom B. By scanning the field from bottom to top C. By scanning even numbered lines in one field and odd numbered ones in the next D. By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in the next 4BB-2A.4 What is ++++blanking++++ in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync-pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left and from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern 4BB-2A.5 What is the standard video voltage level between the sync tip and the whitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator inputs? A. 1 volt peak-to-peak B. 120 IEEE units C. 12 volts DC D. 5 volts RMS 4BB-2A.6 What is the bandwidth of a fast-scan television transmission? A. 3 kHz B. 10 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 6 MHz 4BB-2A.7 What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 70% D. 100% 4BB-2A.8 What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 70% D. 100% 4BB-2A.9 What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 75% D. 100% 4BC-1.1 What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by ++++moonbounce++++? A. 500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee B. 2,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee C. 5,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee D. Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window 4BC-1.2 What characterizes ++++libration fading++++ of an EME signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery, rapid irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises D. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal 4BC-1.3 What are the best days to schedule EME contacts? A. When the moon is at perigee B. When the moon is full C. When the moon is at apogee D. When the weather at both stations is clear 4BC-1.4 What type of receiving system is required for EME communications? A. Equipment capable of reception on 14 MHz B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures 4BC-1.5 What type of transmitting system is required for EME communications? A. A transmitting system capable of operation on the 21 MHz band B. A transmitting system capable of producing a very high EIRP C. A transmitting system using an unmodulated carrier D. A transmitting system with a high second harmonic output 4BC-2.1 When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The F1 layer B. The E layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer 4BC-2.2 Which range of frequencies is well suited for ++++meteor- scatter++++ communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz 4BC-3.1 What is ++++transequatorial propagation++++? A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between two points on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between any two stations at the same latitude 4BC-3.2 What is the maximum range for signals using ++++transequatorial propagation++++? A. About 1,000 miles B. About 2,500 miles C. About 5,000 miles D. About 7,500 miles 4BC-3.3 What is the best time of day for ++++transequatorial propagation++++? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Transequatorial propagation only works at night 4BC-4.1 If a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals, what type of propagation is probably occurring? A. Transequatorial propagation B. Sporadic-E propagation C. Long-path propagation D. Auroral propagation 4BC-5.1 What is the name for a type of propagation in which radio signals travel along the ++++terminator++++, which separates daylight from darkness? A. Transequatorial propagation B. Sporadic-E propagation C. Long-path propagation D. Gray-line propagation 4BD-1A.1 How does a ++++spectrum analyzer++++ differ from a conventional time-domain oscilloscope? A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the time domain C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies 4BD-1A.2 What does the horizontal axis of a ++++spectrum analyzer++++ display? A. Amplitude B. Voltage C. Resonance D. Frequency 4BD-1A.3 What does the vertical axis of a ++++spectrum analyzer++++ display? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. Frequency D. Time 4BD-1B.1 What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer 4BD-1B.2 What test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products from an SSB transmitter? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer 4BD-2A.1 What advantage does a ++++logic probe++++ have over a voltmeter for monitoring logic states in a circuit? A. A logic probe has fewer leads to connect to a circuit than a voltmeter B. A logic probe can be used to test analog and digital circuits C. A logic probe can be powered by commercial AC lines D. A logic probe is smaller and shows a simplified readout 4BD-2A.2 What piece of test equipment can be used to directly indicate high and low logic states? A. A galvanometer B. An electroscope C. A logic probe D. A Wheatstone bridge 4BD-2A.3 What is a logic probe used to indicate? A. A short-circuit fault in a digital-logic circuit B. An open-circuit failure in a digital-logic circuit C. A high-impedance ground loop D. High and low logic states in a digital-logic circuit 4BD-2B.1 What piece of test equipment besides an oscilloscope can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital-logic circuit? A. A logic probe B. A galvanometer C. An electroscope D. A Wheatstone bridge 4BD-3A.1 What is one of the most significant problems you might encounter when you try to receive signals with a mobile station? A. Ignition noise B. Doppler shift C. Radar interference D. Mechanical vibrations See EXTRA-2.ASC for the continuation of this pool...